Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 00:21
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What would you do if you were lost at sea in the Florida Keys?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why do North Indians, living in Bangalore, not bother to learn Kannada?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?